Saturday, June 21, 2008

Did Christ's death accomplish the actuality of salvation or the potentiality of salvation. I argue for the former, as does my friend, Mr. Spurgeon...

We are often told that we limit the atonement of Christ, because we say
that Christ hasnot made a satisfaction for all men, or all men would be saved.
Now, our reply to this is, that, on the other hand, our opponents limit it; we
do not. The Arminians say, Christ died for all men. Ask them what they mean by
it. Did Christ die so as to secure the salvation of all men? They say,
"No, certainly not." We ask them the next question - Did Christ die so as to
secure the salvation of any man in particular? They answer, "No." They
are obliged to admit this, if they are consistent. They say, "No, Christ has
died that any man may be saved if" -- and then follow certain conditions of salvation. Now, who is it that limits the death of
Christ? Why you. You say that Christ did not die so as infallibly to secure the
salvation of anybody. We beg your pardon, when you say we limit Christ's death;
we say, "No, my dear sir, it is you that do it." We say that Christ so died that
he infallibly secured the salvation of a multitude that no man can
number, who through Christ's death not only may be saved, but are saved
and cannot by any possibility run the hazard of being anything but
saved. You are welcome to your atonement; you may keep it. We will never
renounce ours for the sake of it.
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